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NOTE A Note on Two Erroneous Ways of Defending the Pure Time Preference Theory of Interest

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It's my second time here, but I'm nevertheless excited and a bit nervous.

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I would like, of course, to thank Professor Salerno, the director of this event and the

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Mises Institute for providing me with this opportunity.

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It's a great experience.

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Browsing my presentation the other night, I said to myself, it looked better before.

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But nevertheless, after having traveled for 20 hours or so to get to this point, you will

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not be spared.

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So my paper is entitled A Note on Two Ironious Ways of Defending the Pure Time Preference

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Theory of Interest.

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And the plan of my presentation is the following, after a few introductory remarks, I will just

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go straight into those defenses that I previously thought were good, I used them quite a lot,

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and now I am not so sure.

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I would like to confess from the very beginning that I am a supporter of the pure time preference

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of Interest, and of the time preference theory as such, as a praxeological theory.

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So I'm very much interested in the toughest arguments to defend this theory.

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And I think that lately, in the last decade, more or less, we have a track of papers that

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might suggest papers that might suggest that we are in another round, so to speak, of this

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debate on interest. How substantial, I don't know, we will just have to see. I might add

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to that list of papers some recent papers by Professor Hulsman, which is, as opposed

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He goes to his first article on interest in 2002, he's attacking, so to speak, the pure-time preference theory from the other end by judging the structure of production and showing that it can be thought in ways incompatible or at odds with the pure-time preference theory of interest, so the list is even longer than that.

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And to my mind, the issue has tremendous consequences, because as I see things, one of the victims of, let's say, of a possible conclusion that the pure time preference theory of interest is wrong,

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apart from capital, Austrian capital theory in general, would be the Austrian business cycle theory in its standard version, so to speak.

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The temporal distortion, inter-temporal distortion of production, becomes way less significant if interest is underscored by other fundamentals.

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So, the consequences are important.

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You can even see some of these consequences in various ways of laying out the theory of the crisis,

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crisis either in terms of inter-temporal distortion or in terms of moral hazard.

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But more on that maybe in the question section, if it is the case.

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A quick reminder, although that might not be necessary here, I'm sure it's not necessary

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for time preference and I'm relying on Mises.

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So first, Mises defines time preference as other things being equal satisfaction in a

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nearer period of the future is preferred to satisfaction in a more distant future.

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And he also defines time preference in terms of goods, present goods are more valuable

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than future goods, so both satisfaction and goods, and he links directly with no problems

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whatsoever interest to, time preference to interest, saying that time preference manifests

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presents itself in the phenomenon of originary interest, which right on is the discount of

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future goods as against present goods.

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And he says that always and everywhere, all instances of interest are underspinned by

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this fundamental aspect.

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There would be one important issue, very important issue, but it is not crucial to my specific

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argument today. Do we obtain significant differences if we judge the time preference in terms of

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goods, future goods versus present goods, as opposed to satisfactions, future satisfactions

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versus present satisfactions, because this seems to be quite an issue in a few of the

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I will not get into this here, but after thinking a bit about it, my opinion, my take on it is that it's a fake issue, because at least for consumption goods, in the end it is the actual satisfaction that they provide that really counts.

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So, making a distinction, a tough distinction between satisfactions and goods would push

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us into some sort of a materialistic view of things.

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So I think if we stick to the setter disparibus, to the other things equal assumption or way

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of thinking, there is no difference between the two ways of laying out the theory of interest.

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Although I know we could have quite a lot of debates here.

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So let me proceed right on to the first defense

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of the pure time preference theory of interest,

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which I very much liked previously.

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I thought this is the toughest way of defending

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time preference as a praxeological category,

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not just as a contingent element in human action.

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And briefly put, the argument is a reductio ad absurdum, so let's suppose that we have the opposite of time preference, let's suppose we do not prefer always the present to the future.

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And the immediate conclusion of this type of defense of the pure time preference theory of interest says,

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well, then consumption would disappear, men would never consume, or in another variety, action altogether would just disappear.

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Appear, so if you do not always prefer the present, it means you always prefer the future,

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so therefore indefinite postponement, so just a standstill of a freezing of things.

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And this would be the way I would defend it while presenting the problem to my students

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and when I would debate with friends.

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A very smart friend of mine, which is also my son-in-law, a bright mathematician, and

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keen on these logical aspects, once said to me, you're not reasoning right, but first

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let me show you some instances in which this argument is present.

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First, the standard fragment from Mises.

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I will just go to the main points, so Mises is trying to convey the idea that time preference

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is a categorical requisite of human action, so it's always present in every action.

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And the crux of the matter is he says not to prefer satisfaction in a nearer period

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of the future, to that in a remote period he would never consume and so satisfy ones.

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And he says in about three versions this in Human Action.

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I also search from some equivalent assertions in terms of interest, not in terms of type

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preference.

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But I will not get into them here because they will take quite some time.

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Rothbard also takes over this type of argument in defense, this deduction at absurdity.

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If other things being equal, man did not prefer satisfaction in the present to that in the

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future, he would never consume.

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But never consuming is an absurdity, so on and so forth.

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Professor de Soto also uses this argument, but then he uses it sticking with the broader

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category of action, not only of consumption, this being an issue in itself, whether we

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look at time preference in terms of consumption as a consumption-based principle or as an

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action-based principle, important issue again, again I think not crucial to my specific argument.

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And of course, Professor Block's way of conveying this same defense.

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The only way to illustrate a lack or the opposite of time preference is never to act at all.

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This would be the sharpest and more general way of putting it.

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And of course, this possible topic of discussion, I will not get into it here.

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Again, I think the defensible view of the pure time preference theory of action is the one who considers time preference as a category of action, not only of consumption, of all action.

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And in this sense, Mises is a little bit misleading. It uses both concepts.

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Now, my main problem with this is the following, as pointed by my bright son-in-law.

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He said, let me try to put it more simply, you say you always prefer the present.

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And when I ask you why, you try to make a reduction at absurdum.

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If that were not so, then I would always prefer the future.

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But he says this is just not right.

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Because the negation of a universal proposition is not the other universal.

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So if the negation of the proposition that all A's are B's is not that therefore if

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this is not true all the B's should not be A, but just the particular sum, you have to

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find some of the A's which are not the B's.

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So, if we try to apply this to the time preference principle, the ever postponing of action is

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not the expression of the opposite of time preference.

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The opposite of time preference has to look somewhat different.

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And I kept thinking about it, what is the opposite of time preference actually, okay?

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Can we conceive what would it look like?

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And okay, I'm on shaky grounds here, I just proposed to you this experiment in thinking.

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I think that the logical opposite would be to try to think this to the end, other things

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If things equal, present satisfaction is at least once or sometimes less valuable than future satisfaction.

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If at least one time, for one small slot in time, we could think and then see in practice that men, for five minutes or for three minutes,

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So, we could conceive men as preferring other things to equal the future satisfaction to the present one,

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then we would have a falsification of the pure time preference, of the time preference principle.

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But what, again, let's push the matter as far as possible.

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If we try to think the opposite of time preference through the final logical conclusion, what does it look like?

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And the only way I can think of it is we would have to devise a concept of conscious non-action,

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which I think in the end can be argued that is contradictory.

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It's self-contradictory if we judge it praxeologically.

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And when I first thought of this idea, I would say, ah, that would be easy.

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I think I will find textual evidence in Mises in no time.

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Because my first impression was that Mises actually defines action as purposeful and

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conscious behavior.

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And that would just be it, if by definition, actions is conscious behavior, so you cannot

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have conscious non-action.

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Why do I say that we must have an interval, a small, at least a small interval of conscious

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not action?

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You would have to be conscious because your state would have to express preference, the

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opposite of time preference, so you would have to be conscious.

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But again, you would have to not be acting in that time interval because if you would

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Act, like, so I want to eat the egg, the egg is my, one egg is my first need, and I just

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want to postpone it, if I were to express the opposite of time preference, I cannot do

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something else in the meantime, otherwise I would contradict the assumption that the

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egg is my most important need, okay?

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So I have to be conscious because it has to be preference, but I must not do anything

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which will be qualified as action, because then what would be the purpose of that action

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done in the meantime, so time preference would be still present there, in that instance of

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action.

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But Mises is not necessarily and straightforwardly helpful in this matter.

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He seems to consider and define even action as conscious behavior, although he doesn't

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do it directly, he considers action as purposeful behavior and he considers that conscious and

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purposeful are pretty much one and the same.

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But again, in some places he seems to allow for the existence of moments of conscious non-action.

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Not straightforwardly of course, but when he says for instance that action is not simply

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giving preference.

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If you just say and think that you prefer sunshine instead of rain, that's not action.

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He sometimes says the absence of action is not only the result of full satisfaction.

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It can no less be the corollary of the inability to render things more satisfactory, like hopelessness.

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So you could imagine a state of hopelessness which is not conscious, non-action, let's

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say.

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He sometimes speaks as if action is preceded by thinking.

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So thinking is to deliberate beforehand over future action as if,

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okay, maybe I'm too picky on him, I agree,

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but he might suggest that first you think and then you act,

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and then you have a previous period of thinking in which you're conscious

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because you're thinking, but you might not be acting.

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Nevertheless, he again has strong assertions pushing in the direction that man always acts.

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So if the opposite of time preference never appears, then man must always act.

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We have to have continuous action, continuous action.

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And he has this sort of suggestions that the most passive type of behavior is still action

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because you could at least interfere with the following course of events and you don't

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do it.

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Indulgence in a routine which could possibly be changed is action.

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So then, to my mind, it's not clear what could not, what realistic state of a man could be qualified, of a conscious man, could be qualified as non-action.

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Rothbard is way more straightforward on this. He's from the very beginning of the opinion that man must always act.

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Okay, he's always in a position to improve his lot.

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So, if I'm right then, admitting the possibility of the opposite of time preference,

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we would have to admit the idea of conscious non-action which is contradictory.

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and if OTP, if the opposite of time preference is indeed contradictory, then time preference is, let's say, praxeologically, logically established.

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May I obtain two or three more minutes just to... okay, thank you, thank you very much.

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The second erroneous defense, and I won't do justice to it in two minutes, but I will try just to present it,

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is this idea, which I also used quite a lot, that in a sense, money interest proves or demonstrates or isolates time, pure time preference.

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and the great book edited by Professor Herberner recently brings many good,

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a treasure of good arguments in favor of the pure time preference of interest,

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but I'm not convinced by this main, main, main point.

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The crux of it is that the discount of future money relative to present money is interest

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and determines the pure or time preference rate of interest.

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The rate of interest reflecting pure time preference emerges in the exchange of present

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money for future money.

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The most complete way of conveying the argument is the second quote here because the moment

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in time that a unit of money is held does not affect its usefulness.

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Money serves as a common denominator in inter-temporal as well as present exchanges.

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And then the exchange of present money for future money therefore isolates the time discount

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of pure time preference factor and permits the emergence of a pure rate of interest.

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And why I am not convinced.

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The crux of the matter is that the argument implies that non-money goods always suffer

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from the problem of timing, and money never suffers from the problem of timing, as I see

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things.

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And I will not get more into it, but to my mind, the main argument in favor of the idea

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that money never suffers from the problem of timing is that that particular usefulness,

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the use of as media of exchange is preserved through time.

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And I think this is not satisfactory because I think I can think of this difference.

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When do I need to have exchanges now or around my wife's birthday?

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and I see that we might have a timing problem there too.

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I stop here even though I didn't do justice

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to this particular point.

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Thank you very much.

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Thank you very much.
