WEBVTT

NOTE How Is Fiat Money Possible?

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My topic is, how is fiat money possible?

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Let me start out by explaining briefly what fiat money is.

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Fiat money is irredeemable paper money, that is money which is neither usable for any industrial purposes,

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Nor money that represents a claim or a title to a specified commodity.

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With respect to the question, is such a thing possible?

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We all know, of course, the answer.

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That is, yes, obviously fiat money is possible.

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As a matter of fact, since 1971, we have for the first time in world history a situation where the entire world is on a fiat money standard.

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There is no currency in the world that is redeemable into anything except the same thing that you turn in.

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My question is not is it possible but how, in which way can fiat money come into existence?

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Can it come into existence as the outcome of the interactions of self-interested individuals

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and in particular can it come into existence without violating in any way principles of

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justice or introducing or by introducing economic inefficiencies into the system and the answer

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that I will try to explain is it cannot, that is fiat money cannot arise in a just and economically

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in an efficient way.

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The purpose of my speech is generally systematic, but given the fact that the thesis that I

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try to defend here has been frequently disputed, I want to examine and critically analyze a

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a number of counter arguments to the thesis that I will advance here along the way. In

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particular, I want to analyze arguments advanced by the monetarist school of economics, especially

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by Milton Friedman, also by Irving Fisher, and the arguments that have been advanced

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by some Austrian renegades, Larry White and George Selgin.

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There are considerable differences between the monetarists

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and these Austrian renegades.

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Nonetheless, despite these differences,

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they hold in common the view that either a total

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or a partial fiat money is just

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and efficient and would spontaneously emerge on the market.

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I will try to point out various flaws in these arguments

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and along the way also try to clear up a number of errors

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and nonsensical statements that otherwise have been made

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in contemporary monetary theory.

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Let me begin by briefly recapitulating the basic insights of the Austrian School with

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respect to the origin of money first. Given that people have a certain amount of, a certain

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to demand for leisure, in general people prefer more exchange goods over less exchange goods.

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And because of this people prefer division of labor as being more productive over self-sufficiency.

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Money arises for the same selfish reasons, so to speak. People in a barter economy produce

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for exchange and it can happen that the supply of goods offered for exchange is mismatched

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with a demand for goods. It can happen in barter that a double coincidence of wants is

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absent. It is that I have what you want but you do not want what I have. In such a situation

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where we find that the supply of exchange goods is mismatched with the demand for these

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Goods, self-interested individuals can still improve their situation if they exchange a

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less marketable good or if they succeed in exchanging a less marketable good for a more

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marketable good.

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If they succeed in doing this and acquire a more marketable good for a less marketable

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good, then an additional demand component is added to this particular good that was

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traded for the fact that it was more marketable. An additional demand component is added to

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This is a pre-existing barter demand for this good.

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This additional demand component enhances the marketability of this particular good

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even further.

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This is noticed by other individuals that this good has increased marketability and

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Other people will now, for the same reason of covering their losses, so to speak, from oversupplies, also demand this particular good.

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Goods that are acquired not for the purpose of using them for any direct purpose, but using them in order to resell them, in order to acquire what people really want.

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Such goods are called the media of exchange and the definition of money is to be a medium of exchange.

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Money is the most easily resaleable good and the most generally accepted good.

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In the course of inter-regional trade, which also takes place because people, again, want to participate in the advantages offered by division of labor.

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In the course of the expansion of inter-regional trade, different types of money compete against each other,

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and there is a tendency in the market that one money will outcompete another money, such that at the end of the process, so to speak, only a single money commodity that is in worldwide use will emerge.

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Historically, this has been gold, of course. This is essentially, in very brief form, the tradition of Turgol, Menger, Mises and Rothbard of monetary thought, Joseph Salerno talked about that yesterday.

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According to this tradition, money has one single function, that is, to serve as a medium of exchange, to be a facilitator of exchange, and money must, under all circumstances, arise as a commodity money.

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It must arise as a commodity money because something can be demanded as a medium of exchange only if it has already a pre-existing barter demand.

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As a matter of fact, money is that commodity that had a very high degree of marketability under barter conditions.

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At this moment now let me just make a few remarks regarding some alternative or rival theories

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of money. What about the idea of commodity reserve money? Money being backed by a bundle

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of Goods has been frequently proposed as an alternative to something like a gold standard.

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Can titles to bundles of good become money? The answer is no such a thing is absolutely

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impossible because bundles of goods are by definition less easily saleable than the most

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is easily saleable of the components of this bundle of goods and because of this, commodity

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reserve money is uniquely unsuited to become generally accepted as money.

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What about the idea of national monies?

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You notice that I emphasize the idea that money has a tendency to become an international,

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internationally used money. The idea of national money is of course an idea of Milton Friedman's.

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And what of the idea of optimal currency areas? Both ideas are obviously closely related.

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I would think that such an idea as national money or an optimal currency area seems to

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be entirely absurd except as an intermediate step, so to speak, in the development of money

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towards the ultimate goal of a one world type money.

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There are no more optimal currency areas than there are optimal trading areas.

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I have not encountered anybody who thinks that there are optimal trading areas.

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Everybody seems to think the optimal trading area is the world market.

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And the same, as far as I can see, applies also to money.

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It is, in a way, implied in the concept of a medium of exchange

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that it has a tendency towards becoming one and universal.

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I have been criticized with respect to this argument that I am confusing process and end

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state analysis, emphasizing the idea that there is an end state that money can possibly

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reach.

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This criticism has probably been inspired by Hayek who makes this distinction between process

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and end-state analysis.

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As far as I can see, again, this criticism is entirely unjustified.

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Actions are always goal-directed processes.

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Otherwise, if we have a process without a goal, what type of process would that be?

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That seems to be just random or noise.

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That a more widely or easily saleable medium of exchange is preferred to a less easily

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and less widely saleable one is as certain as that a more productive machine outcompetes

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a less productive one. A single and universally acceptable medium of exchange is as good as

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money can possibly get. What about the idea of separating money from the medium of exchange,

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From the Unit of Account, thesis like this have been advanced by Jaeger and Fama and

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Hall and Greenfield, various other authors. As far as I can see, this thesis is complete

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nonsense. In search of profit maximization, exchange producers will want to account in

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in terms of the most easily saleable and most generally acceptable commodity of all.

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By buying and selling, buying and selling markets are, if we have one world commodity

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money, buying and selling markets are thereby made the widest possible and a medium of exchange

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and the unit of account function

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are necessarily tied together.

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You cannot separate one from the other.

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What about other functions that are attributed to money?

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Frequently it is mentioned that money is a store of value.

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In this argument we would have to say,

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yes of course money is a store of value,

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But that is not the function of money.

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There are all sorts of goods that are stores of value,

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and there might well be goods that are better

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as a store of value than money is.

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And if we would discover that there are other goods

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that serve better as a store of value than money,

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that would certainly not be a sufficient argument

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to criticize money for not being as good

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a Store of Value as Other Goods. It is also the case that money is used generally as a

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standard of deferred payment, but again, other things might well also be used as a standard

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of deferred payment. That is not necessarily implied in the function of money. Nor, and

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And I want to emphasize this in particular, nor is money a measure of value.

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This is one of the ideas that had great attraction up to this day in the monetarist tradition

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of economic thought.

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They hold up to this day that money has the function of serving as some measure of value.

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Now, why are these arguments pointing out that money's function is to be a measure of value wrong?

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Let me give you some counter-arguments here.

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For, if you compare, say, a ruler being the measure of space,

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What is the demand for a measuring instrument like a ruler at any given point in time for

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a single person? We can say the demand for rulers at any given point in time and space

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is one. We only need one ruler and with one ruler we can measure all of space. We do not

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need thousands of rulers to make spatial measurements, one single one would do it all. And obviously

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there is a demand for money that is higher than just one unit of it. Secondly, a ruler

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or any other measuring instrument scales. A ruler is not being exchanged in the course

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of Making the Measurement. On the other hand, money obviously is being exchanged in the

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course of allegedly measuring value. But if that is the case and money is an exchange

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good, then it seems to follow that the marginal utility of money continuously changes with

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each exchange of money. If my supply of money goes down as a force of spending it, the marginal

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utility of money increases. If my money supply increases, then the marginal utility decreases.

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If money, however, is an exchange good, contrary to rulers and scales, then nobody would want

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that money should be stable valued.

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Instead, as for all other goods, everybody would prefer that the value of this good increases

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over time.

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People do not want stable money, they would prefer a money that increases in purchasing

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power.

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Lastly, what about the thesis that the demand for money as non-interest-bearing cash would

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disappear if there existed no legal restrictions in the securities markets?

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Such a thesis has been advanced by Pharma in a slightly different version by Neil Wallace

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from the Rational Expectations School.

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They claim that absence of any legal restrictions, only interest paying titles to either debt

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or equity portfolios such as money market funds would remain in existence and all non-interest-bearing

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cash would disappear entirely.

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The first problem with this thesis is if there is no interest-bearing cash anymore in circulation,

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What would then be the unit of denomination that is used for all of these securities?

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And the second and more important argument against this is the following.

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People who assume that money could entirely disappear from circulation must make the assumption

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We are in equilibrium. A single person might have no demand for money. It can happen that

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the person is simply cashless. But the demand for money generally can only disappear if

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people would have perfect foresight with respect to the future conditions of markets because

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in such a situation with perfect foresight all exchanges including credit transactions

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can be arranged in the form of direct exchanges without the interposition of money, but obviously

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this is entirely inapplicable to the real world where there exists uncertainty or else

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Money could disappear only, and this is what Neil Wallace, for instance, assumes, and that

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is in line with the general egalitarianism of the Chicago school, that all goods are

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equally marketable. If all goods are equally marketable, then by definition there exists

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is no difference with respect to the saleability of cash and any type of securities. But in

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this situation, obviously, equal saleability is only possible if all goods are perfectly

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identical to each other. If all goods are perfectly identical to each other, we can

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can, however, not even explain why people even engage in division of labor and exchange.

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This idea of all goods have equal salability is in a way the complement to the Chicago

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view, which Gary Becker is a typical example, that all individuals are also the same.

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All individuals are the same, and all capital goods are the same, according to Chicago economists.

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Capital is just a homogeneous blob, and if it is a homogeneous blob, then every good

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is equally saleable to any other. In the absence of these absurd assumptions, we have to come

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come up with the conclusion that the demand for money cannot possibly disappear.

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Now back to the question if money originates as a commodity money, how can it become fiat

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money?

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The Turgot-Rothbard tradition of monetary thought answers this question by saying it

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can come into existence via money substitutes, that is checks and banknotes, but it can come

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into existence only in a fraudulent manner, by unilateral expropriation and only at the

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price of introducing all sorts of economic inefficiencies.

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Now why is this?

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Let's assume a developed monetary economy where we have money proper, commodity money,

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and money substitutes as claims to money.

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This fact that we have money proper and money substitutes has no impact on the total money

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Money Supply, it only changes the composition of the supply of money.

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Both types of money allegedly trade at par, and there is no savings involved here since

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there exists a one-to-one correspondence between paper tickets and species.

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But there is of course an added convenience that results from the fact that people can

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hold money proper and money substitutes.

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This is a way how paper tickets can acquire purchasing power.

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that is they can acquire purchasing power riding piggyback on a commodity money such as gold.

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These tickets can only free float from now on if redeemability into the species that

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originally made it possible that these tickets could acquire purchasing power, if redeemability

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is suddenly suspended but this obviously requires that the money owners are being expropriated

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through the bank and obviously no one would agree to this except of course the bank.

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With respect to fractional reserve banking, that is a partial fiat money, we likewise come

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come up with the conclusion that such a development would have to be classified as fraudulent

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and economically inefficient.

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Again, assume a single loan and deposit bank.

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As far as the loan banking function is concerned, we have savers depositing money in the bank

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and they enter a time contract. They engage in a temporary property transfer and extend

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a commodity credit. This commodity credit then becomes embodied in some illiquid productive

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assets, and because of this savers are capable of receiving an interest payment. As far as

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As far as the loan banking function is concerned, the banks make the profit through the interest

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differential, the interest that they pay to the depositors versus the interest that they

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charge the borrowers.

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As far as the deposit function is concerned, deposit banks engage in 100% reserves. Every

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deposit note is backed 100% by specie. No interest is being paid on deposit notes. Instead,

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We have to pay a warehousing fee. These notes then are redeemable at par against the specie.

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And the profit, as far as the deposit banking function is concerned, consists of the fee

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paid to the bank for its safeguarding of money. Both the loan and the deposit banks would

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would be able to earn a normal rate of profit in the deposit and the loan business.

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Fractional reserve banking is banking where the savings and deposit functions are, so

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to speak, confused.

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That is, savers are given withdrawal rights, instant withdrawal rights, and depositors

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receive interest on their deposits. Technically, fractional reserve banking is done by loaning

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out excess reserves that the bank possesses. They loan them out into time contracts and

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receive interest for it. The legal consequence of this, and that shows the absurdity of the

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whole thing, the legal consequence of this is the following. For some time now, the depositor

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and the borrower are entitled to exclusive control over the same commodity. Obviously,

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Such a thing is absurd. There cannot be two exclusive owners of the same commodity during

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the same time span. It is fraudulent on the part of the bank even if it would not be uncovered,

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even if it is not discovered that such a thing goes on. Because it affects also third parties,

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because of the inflationary impact that results from issuing uncovered notes.

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It is also economically absurd because the depositor allegedly owns homogeneous money,

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but in fact the borrower has taken the money and has invested it in non-homogeneous capital

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and when the underlying time preference rate, the degree to which people prefer present

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goods over future goods, reestablishes itself, then this has to resolve in some sort of business

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cycle.

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That is, the liquidation of these invested funds implies losses both for the borrower as well as for the depositor.

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The liquidation would only not imply any losses if capital would indeed be a homogeneous blob,

230
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Now, let me make these points in a slightly different and more elaborated way and ask the

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question, why is it impossible to achieve some sort of unanimous agreement to abolish

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commodity money and substitute fiat money for it.

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What I want to show is that there simply exists no motive

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why people would ever want to do anything like this.

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Friedman holds the opposite view.

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Friedman contends that a pure commodity money standard

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such as gold tends to break down

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00:31:46.780 --> 00:31:56.180
because it is economically inefficient and similar, similarly to Friedman George Selgin

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for instance, thinks that fractional reserve banking is a natural and more efficient outgrowth

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out of a system that started out with 100% reserve bank.

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Assume again one bank and money proper and notes in circulation.

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The first problem that we would encounter is would people voluntarily want to give up

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using what is nowadays called outside money, that is money proper, and substitute what

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What is called inside money, bank notes and checks for it. As long as people would not

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give up using outside money in circulation, money proper in circulation, it seems to be

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clear that they demonstrate that they prefer outside money over inside money or at least

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Now, would people want to substitute inside money for outside money completely?

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With respect to this problem, I think even the tradition of Turgot to Rothbard has been

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too generous in admitting the assumption that such a substitution can take place.

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00:33:36.720 --> 00:33:44.960
I want to explain why such a substitution of inside money for outside money, paper money

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for genuine commodity money is to happen only to a very limited extent.

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00:33:54.760 --> 00:34:02.000
Money substitutes, needs to be recalled, money substitutes are just that, substitutes.

253
00:34:02.000 --> 00:34:11.600
And they have one permanent and decisive disadvantage as compared to money proper. And because of

254
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this, the public would never want to make a complete substitution of inside money for

255
00:34:20.340 --> 00:34:26.840
outside money. Now what is this permanent disadvantage that substitute money has as

256
00:34:26.840 --> 00:34:28.720
compared with commodity money.

257
00:34:30.480 --> 00:34:34.960
The reason is this, notes, paper notes,

258
00:34:34.960 --> 00:34:39.960
can be redeemable at par only if and to the extent

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00:34:41.500 --> 00:34:45.160
that a deposit fee has been paid to the bank.

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But deposit fees are of course not paid

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00:34:49.920 --> 00:34:52.360
for an indefinite period of time,

262
00:34:52.360 --> 00:34:56.280
they are only paid for a certain period of time.

263
00:34:56.280 --> 00:35:12.280
If the notes are redeemed after the date up to which a depositing fee has been paid, then redeemability charges must be made by the bank.

264
00:35:12.280 --> 00:35:24.280
The bank must ask the person who wants to redeem the note to pay up the depositing fee that has not been paid yet.

265
00:35:24.280 --> 00:35:32.280
And notes then must trade at a discount against money proper.

266
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Only genuine money, commodity money, is always and indefinitely accepted at par.

267
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And notes are only temporarily accepted at par.

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It is a mistake to think that notes trade at a premium over money, it is sometimes thought to be this way because people think there is a money price being paid for note acquisition.

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But fundamentally, the thing is just the other way around.

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Notes trade at a permanent discount, and the price paid, so to speak, for the acquisition of notes is not the price paid for notes, it is the price paid for guarded money.

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Now, as long as the demand for outside money is in existence, and my argument tried to

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make the point that the demand for outside money could never possibly disappear, as long

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00:36:47.040 --> 00:36:57.640
as there is a demand for outside money, the argument that monetarists make, we should

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00:36:57.640 --> 00:37:06.640
substitute fiat money for commodity money in order to save is obviously, obviously absurd.

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00:37:06.640 --> 00:37:11.320
People demonstrate through their own actions that they are not interested in doing this

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type of saving.

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00:37:13.920 --> 00:37:20.640
Now assume nonetheless that exclusive, for the sake of argument, that exclusively notes

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00:37:20.640 --> 00:37:27.360
circulate and the commodity money is all in the banks.

279
00:37:27.360 --> 00:37:33.960
Would there then be a savings motive as the Chicago School assumes?

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That is, wouldn't it then be a waste to guard all the money in the bank and shouldn't this

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00:37:44.800 --> 00:37:55.400
money go all to non-monetary uses and instead a free-floating paper currency be established?

282
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I want to show that the answer is no, and why this argument is fallacious. First, this

283
00:38:08.720 --> 00:38:17.480
argument can certainly not mean that the bank would get now all the money that is deposited

284
00:38:17.480 --> 00:38:24.360
in it. Who would agree to such a savings? That is, you keep the note, and the bank keeps

285
00:38:24.360 --> 00:38:27.840
It's all the genuine money deposited in the bank.

286
00:38:27.840 --> 00:38:31.920
That seems to be a funny type of savings.

287
00:38:31.920 --> 00:38:37.800
Instead, in order to make any sense out of this argument, in order to get the savings,

288
00:38:37.800 --> 00:38:46.000
we want to, each depositor would of course insist, I want to get my money back first.

289
00:38:46.000 --> 00:38:52.560
And then we would have a situation where either the bank gets the tickets back, the notes

290
00:38:52.560 --> 00:38:59.560
In any case, the bank would now be empty. Then the problem arises. Now the production

291
00:39:14.160 --> 00:39:21.160
costs of these tickets, which was formerly the cost of attracting gold depositors, now

292
00:39:22.560 --> 00:39:27.560
has fallen almost or practically to zero.

293
00:39:27.920 --> 00:39:29.600
The production cost of the tickets

294
00:39:29.600 --> 00:39:31.760
was under a gold standard not zero

295
00:39:31.760 --> 00:39:33.720
because the production cost involves

296
00:39:33.720 --> 00:39:36.480
attract gold depositors to come to me

297
00:39:36.480 --> 00:39:37.920
and then they get a ticket.

298
00:39:37.920 --> 00:39:40.480
Now, however, there's no depositing anymore.

299
00:39:40.480 --> 00:39:43.040
Paper floats around freely.

300
00:39:43.040 --> 00:39:45.580
Production costs are practically zero.

301
00:39:47.920 --> 00:39:50.640
The notes had earlier on acquired

302
00:39:50.640 --> 00:39:59.840
purchasing power, writing piggyback on commodity money, but how can the bank or the public,

303
00:39:59.840 --> 00:40:08.440
whoever now owns the tickets, sell these tickets to anyone, or how would anybody want to accept

304
00:40:08.440 --> 00:40:14.320
these tickets?

305
00:40:14.320 --> 00:40:22.060
Would these tickets be bought or sold for non-money goods at the old exchange ratios

306
00:40:22.060 --> 00:40:27.320
that were established while the commodity money standard was still in existence?

307
00:40:27.320 --> 00:40:32.800
And the answer seems to be obvious, no such a thing is absolutely impossible, at least

308
00:40:32.800 --> 00:40:40.000
as long as there exists free entry into the note production business.

309
00:40:40.000 --> 00:40:47.240
If the price paid for the tickets exceeded their cost of production, people would immediately

310
00:40:47.240 --> 00:40:52.480
print additional notes up and we would have hyperinflation.

311
00:40:52.480 --> 00:40:59.520
And certainly no one would buy notes for more than it would cost him himself to print up

312
00:40:59.520 --> 00:41:00.520
these tickets.

313
00:41:00.520 --> 00:41:06.680
Now it is interesting that Friedman realizes this.

314
00:41:06.680 --> 00:41:12.340
Friedman realizes, it is also disputed by some people but I think he is correct in this,

315
00:41:12.340 --> 00:41:22.680
Friedman realizes that a pure fiat money requires a monopoly bank and a monopoly note issuer.

316
00:41:22.680 --> 00:41:30.780
Under competitive conditions, a fiat money regime would immediately lead to hyperinflation

317
00:41:30.780 --> 00:41:34.260
and then to a breakdown of the monetary system

318
00:41:34.260 --> 00:41:38.620
and then to a re-emergence of a commodity money,

319
00:41:38.620 --> 00:41:41.140
which according to Friedman is wasteful.

320
00:41:42.260 --> 00:41:45.860
So the solution to this is there must be a restriction

321
00:41:45.860 --> 00:41:49.780
to free entry into the note production business.

322
00:41:49.780 --> 00:41:51.540
There must be a monopoly.

323
00:41:53.020 --> 00:41:56.900
The monopolist can of course also cause hyperinflation,

324
00:41:56.900 --> 00:41:59.980
but since he is not operating in a competitive environment,

325
00:41:59.980 --> 00:42:03.480
He must not cause hyperinflation.

326
00:42:03.480 --> 00:42:08.480
He can restrict the production of paper tickets

327
00:42:08.760 --> 00:42:11.660
and indeed he must restrict the production

328
00:42:11.660 --> 00:42:15.020
of paper tickets if he wants to stay in business at all.

329
00:42:17.120 --> 00:42:20.980
The bank now takes in notes,

330
00:42:20.980 --> 00:42:23.660
either in the form of time contracts

331
00:42:23.660 --> 00:42:26.700
to be loaned out and earning interest

332
00:42:26.700 --> 00:42:36.140
or in the form of deposit in exchange for the issuance of substitutes of substitutes

333
00:42:36.140 --> 00:42:40.300
and against a depositing fee.

334
00:42:40.300 --> 00:42:47.040
And the social savings now would be the difference, so to speak, between the guarding cost for

335
00:42:47.040 --> 00:42:55.140
commodity money versus the guarding cost necessary in order to guard money substitutes.

336
00:42:55.140 --> 00:43:03.780
But now there are two problems that arise. The first one is, who should own such a bank?

337
00:43:03.780 --> 00:43:12.620
And the second one is, what should be the principles of operation for this bank? And

338
00:43:12.620 --> 00:43:18.940
the problem is, we have to explain, can there be agreement? Can people pursuing their selfish

339
00:43:18.940 --> 00:43:36.340
Let me first consider the ownership problem. Just as people would want to get their genuine

340
00:43:36.340 --> 00:43:42.460
money back in order to profit from the savings themselves and not let the banks do all the

341
00:43:42.460 --> 00:43:50.460
savings, and they do all the losing. If a specific individual or group of individuals

342
00:43:50.460 --> 00:43:59.180
would become the owner of this bank, no agreement would be possible because this monopolist

343
00:43:59.180 --> 00:44:06.780
would have been capitalized in the form of having inflated assets. That is, the owner

344
00:44:06.780 --> 00:44:14.900
would gain from the fact of being a monopolist and the general public would get nothing of

345
00:44:14.900 --> 00:44:20.820
the social savings, so to speak.

346
00:44:20.820 --> 00:44:29.100
What people would want to insist on is a real part of the social savings that result from

347
00:44:29.100 --> 00:44:40.260
and the substitution of fiat money for commodity money, and not just a specific owner.

348
00:44:40.260 --> 00:44:46.700
The bank must be owned by everyone, everybody must be a co-owner of the bank.

349
00:44:46.700 --> 00:44:54.580
But to say this does not answer the question, at least not to the degree of precision that

350
00:44:54.580 --> 00:45:05.820
is actually needed for the following reason, should only be money owners or also money

351
00:45:05.820 --> 00:45:10.380
less people become the owner of the bank?

352
00:45:10.380 --> 00:45:16.460
Only the clients of the bank or also the non-clients of the bank?

353
00:45:16.460 --> 00:45:26.260
And what about the ownership and profit shares that each individual should get?

354
00:45:26.260 --> 00:45:37.020
Should the share of ownership and profits depend on each individual's initial money

355
00:45:37.020 --> 00:45:47.060
Endowment or should it depend on the size of the deposit that various people hold in

356
00:45:47.060 --> 00:45:54.100
the bank? But such things, the initial money endowment and the amount of money being deposited

357
00:45:54.100 --> 00:46:03.220
in banks changes of course all the time. Should everybody own the same share and get the same

358
00:46:03.220 --> 00:46:09.680
amount of profits redistributed to him, but then we would have the problem that large

359
00:46:09.680 --> 00:46:15.780
money holders would of course want to get a larger share of the profits than people

360
00:46:15.780 --> 00:46:20.620
who hold no money at all or very small deposits.

361
00:46:20.620 --> 00:46:27.420
It seems to be clear that here it is absolutely impossible to achieve an agreement of how

362
00:46:27.420 --> 00:46:33.140
the ownership question with respect to this bank should be resolved if the ownership of

363
00:46:33.140 --> 00:46:41.140
If the ownership problem cannot be resolved, then it also seems to follow that this substituting

364
00:46:41.140 --> 00:46:48.380
and saving is something that people would not deliberately ever want to have happen.

365
00:46:48.380 --> 00:46:53.860
The second problem is a problem of how should this bank operate.

366
00:46:53.860 --> 00:47:01.100
Regardless of how this ownership problem is resolved, a monopolist, because he is shielded

367
00:47:01.100 --> 00:47:05.260
from Competition will tend to be inefficient.

368
00:47:07.300 --> 00:47:11.660
He will tend to operate at higher than the minimum cost.

369
00:47:12.980 --> 00:47:16.940
Actually, the cost of a monopolist might be higher

370
00:47:16.940 --> 00:47:21.940
than the cost of competitively guarding genuine gold money.

371
00:47:23.860 --> 00:47:27.140
And who will then supervise and guard

372
00:47:27.140 --> 00:47:30.060
against abuse of the bank's power?

373
00:47:30.060 --> 00:47:42.060
All of these public choice considerations are completely absent, at least from Milton Friedman's earlier writings on these issues.

374
00:47:42.060 --> 00:47:52.060
In addition, assume that the bank engages in loan and deposit banks.

375
00:47:52.060 --> 00:48:08.060
Both functions are strictly separated. It makes a profit on interest differential as far as loan banking is concerned and on the depositing fees as far as deposit banking is concerned.

376
00:48:08.060 --> 00:48:25.060
But a fiat money bank must also now assume the function of replacing the worn out notes, even the worn out notes of non-clients of this bank.

377
00:48:25.060 --> 00:48:37.060
Otherwise, people would not want to replace a permanent commodity money by a perishable fiat money.

378
00:48:37.060 --> 00:48:47.060
Under the gold standard, under the commodity money standard, where there practically exists no perishability of money,

379
00:48:47.060 --> 00:48:55.060
every individual money holder assumes this risk himself, and the risk is absolutely very, very limited,

380
00:48:55.060 --> 00:49:00.060
that indeed there is a certain amount of perishing going on.

381
00:49:00.060 --> 00:49:10.380
But who would agree to assume the risk of losing all purchasing power once a note has

382
00:49:10.380 --> 00:49:18.420
been worn out or has been torn apart? Obviously people would only agree to a substitution

383
00:49:18.420 --> 00:49:26.260
of a fiat money for a commodity money if there is a guarantee that if a note is worn out

384
00:49:26.260 --> 00:49:38.600
However, as long as there are any operating costs connecting with this function of replacing

385
00:49:38.600 --> 00:49:46.620
worn-out notes by new ones, and as long as this bank would follow, for instance, the

386
00:49:46.620 --> 00:49:53.820
later Friedman's recommendation of a frozen monetary base, that is, we have paper money

387
00:49:53.820 --> 00:49:59.820
in existence and we never increase the paper money in existence. As long as they would

388
00:49:59.820 --> 00:50:09.780
follow the frozen monetary base rule and replace old notes one to one by new ones and free

389
00:50:09.780 --> 00:50:21.220
of charge, this part of the bank would have to make permanent losses. In order to be profitable,

390
00:50:21.220 --> 00:50:28.800
The bank must be allowed the power to create new money. It must be able to do something

391
00:50:28.800 --> 00:50:36.220
like the early Friedman thought that follow a three or five percent growth rule. It might

392
00:50:36.220 --> 00:50:41.420
not be three or five percent, but in any case it must be able to just create additional

393
00:50:41.420 --> 00:50:50.620
supplies of money. Yet as soon as the bank starts inflating, that is bringing more notes

394
00:50:50.620 --> 00:50:58.820
into circulation. It doesn't matter how big the amount of inflation is. Redistributive

395
00:50:58.820 --> 00:51:07.940
effects must resolve. The new money will not reach every person at the same point in time.

396
00:51:07.940 --> 00:51:11.700
Some people will get the money earlier and some people will get it later. Some people

397
00:51:11.700 --> 00:51:18.740
are made richer and others are made poorer. And because of this, because of these redistributive

398
00:51:18.740 --> 00:51:28.580
Effects. There cannot possibly be any agreement on an inflationary policy of the bank, but

399
00:51:28.580 --> 00:51:39.100
the bank must engage in inflationary policies in order not to incur any loss. Even the fact

400
00:51:39.100 --> 00:51:46.260
that people might get the bank profits paid out to them would be no consolation for the

401
00:51:46.260 --> 00:51:53.260
and the fact that these profits are complemented by unequal losses of various individuals.

402
00:51:55.260 --> 00:52:11.260
The later Friedman realizes this too. Friedman, an article a few years ago, comes to the conclusion

403
00:52:11.260 --> 00:52:22.140
And his earlier argument that fiat money represents a social savings is actually quite false.

404
00:52:22.140 --> 00:52:29.260
He realizes, for instance, that the cost of, that this article is called, the cost of irredeemable

405
00:52:29.260 --> 00:52:37.220
paper money, he realizes, for instance, that the cost of irredeemable paper money are first

406
00:52:37.220 --> 00:52:44.860
Inflationary tendencies have drastically increased as compared with what inflationary tendencies

407
00:52:44.860 --> 00:52:49.260
there were under a commodity money standard.

408
00:52:49.260 --> 00:52:57.860
He has realized that the predictability of future market conditions has become lower

409
00:52:57.860 --> 00:53:02.220
than it was under a commodity money standard.

410
00:53:02.220 --> 00:53:12.700
He has realized that long-term investment plans, long-term investment projects have been decreased

411
00:53:12.700 --> 00:53:21.020
as compared to what they were under a more stable commodity money standard.

412
00:53:21.020 --> 00:53:28.260
He realizes that the number of investment and hard money advisors, who all of course

413
00:53:28.260 --> 00:53:35.260
use some resources as well has drastically increased since we have a pure fiat money

414
00:53:35.420 --> 00:53:42.420
standard as compared with what it was under a commodity money standard. Friedman thinks

415
00:53:44.300 --> 00:53:51.300
that gold production actually increased since we are off the gold standard because people

416
00:53:51.300 --> 00:54:09.100
Friedman believes that money market funds would likely not have developed at all if

417
00:54:09.100 --> 00:54:16.820
we would have stayed on a commodity money standard. Friedman realizes that currency

418
00:54:16.820 --> 00:54:24.080
The future markets would also not likely have developed if we would have stayed on a commodity

419
00:54:24.080 --> 00:54:26.300
money standard.

420
00:54:26.300 --> 00:54:35.380
And all of this obviously involves waste, waste created by the existence of fiat money

421
00:54:35.380 --> 00:54:38.700
which Friedman originally advocated.

422
00:54:38.700 --> 00:54:44.640
Now you would think a person who realizes all of this should come up with the conclusion

423
00:54:44.640 --> 00:54:50.880
I think we should just go back to a commodity money standard, however Friedman dogmatically

424
00:54:50.880 --> 00:54:59.120
clings to the view that despite the refutation of his own thesis, that is, fiat money represents

425
00:54:59.120 --> 00:55:07.440
a savings over a commodity money, despite the obvious refutation, he still thinks that

426
00:55:07.440 --> 00:55:14.400
The gold standard is absolutely ridiculous and the fiat money standard should still be continued.

427
00:55:14.400 --> 00:55:22.400
Despite his own positivist methodology that says economics is prediction, he predicted

428
00:55:22.400 --> 00:55:30.680
that we would save, he found out that we didn't, but he still didn't accept the conclusion

429
00:55:30.680 --> 00:55:35.760
that unfortunately I was wrong.

430
00:55:35.760 --> 00:55:42.240
There can be no monopoly agreement, that was one thing that I pointed out, and there can

431
00:55:42.240 --> 00:55:50.440
also be no agreement on a frozen monetary base, because a frozen monetary base would so to

432
00:55:50.440 --> 00:55:54.680
speak a losing proposition.

433
00:55:54.680 --> 00:56:02.800
Fiat money does not naturally replace commodity money as a more efficient money, but commodity

434
00:56:02.800 --> 00:56:09.800
Money is deliberately destroyed at all money holder's expense.

435
00:56:12.560 --> 00:56:19.560
I'm not quite sure about the time.

436
00:56:22.400 --> 00:56:29.400
Okay, now then briefly, why is fractional reserve banking impossible?

437
00:56:29.400 --> 00:56:43.000
Impossible. And let me only make one little argument that deals with arguments that were

438
00:56:43.000 --> 00:56:57.080
advanced by George Selgin and Larry White. They make the point, doesn't freedom of contract

439
00:56:57.080 --> 00:57:09.600
No, the mistake in that argument is simply that freedom of contract exists only with

440
00:57:09.600 --> 00:57:14.680
respect to the properties of the contracting parties.

441
00:57:14.680 --> 00:57:19.320
People are free to make any contract with respect to things that they own, but people

442
00:57:19.320 --> 00:57:25.260
are not free to make contracts with respect to properties owned by others.

443
00:57:25.260 --> 00:57:29.340
This is precisely what goes on in fractional reserve banking.

444
00:57:29.340 --> 00:57:30.980
So much about that argument.

445
00:57:30.980 --> 00:57:44.460
I want a brief, another brief remark on the idea that we can have option clauses, saying,

446
00:57:44.460 --> 00:57:52.380
putting on the note a remark that in case we can't pay up, we have to wait for some time.

447
00:57:52.380 --> 00:57:59.740
When such notes that have an option clause become money, Larry White for instance claims

448
00:57:59.740 --> 00:58:09.740
that that is possible and I want to give you an argument that shows that it is not possible.

449
00:58:09.740 --> 00:58:17.560
Money notes with an option clause printed on top are clearly only tradable at a discount

450
00:58:17.560 --> 00:58:21.680
against notes that have no option clause attached to it.

451
00:58:21.680 --> 00:58:28.440
And not only that, what is more decisive in order to refute the idea that money or notes

452
00:58:28.440 --> 00:58:36.760
with an option clause can be the most easily resaleable good is simply this.

453
00:58:36.760 --> 00:58:44.440
Notes with an optional clause printed on top of it only confer a conditional property title

454
00:58:44.440 --> 00:58:46.720
to people.

455
00:58:46.720 --> 00:58:55.600
But anything that is a conditional property title is by definition less easily and saleable

456
00:58:55.600 --> 00:59:03.480
and less generally acceptable than an unconditional property title to some extent.

457
00:59:03.480 --> 00:59:07.320
The illustration is, let me just give one example for this.

458
00:59:07.320 --> 00:59:13.280
If you buy airline tickets, these guys frequently draw analogies between airline tickets and

459
00:59:13.280 --> 00:59:14.280
notes.

460
00:59:14.280 --> 00:59:19.360
Let's say you have an airline ticket that has all sorts of conditions attached to it.

461
00:59:19.360 --> 00:59:24.000
You can only fly thirsty and whatever it is and only out of this airport and you have an

462
00:59:24.000 --> 00:59:30.440
unconditional airline ticket. You can anytime you can just come and go. Now when it comes

463
00:59:30.440 --> 00:59:39.360
to the resaleability at par value of an optional airline ticket or a conditional airline ticket

464
00:59:39.360 --> 00:59:47.760
versus an unconditional airline ticket, which one will be more generally acceptable at par,

465
00:59:47.760 --> 00:59:52.760
the conditional one or the unconditional one? The answer should be obvious. Thank you.
